Which languages don't have a gender system?

Tim Drayton wrote:

The following argument seems to be true to me:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genitive_case

"Some linguists argue that it is a common misconception that English nouns have a genitive case, marked by the particle that is always pronounced as part of the preceding word. This is claimed on the basis of the following sort of example: "The king of Sparta’s wife was called Helen." If the English -’s were a genitive case mark, then the wife would belong to Sparta; but the -’s attaches not to the word Sparta, but to the entire phrase the king of Sparta."

atmcclure wrote:

English has three cases (declension): Nomitive, possessive, and objective, which covers indirect objective, direct object, and objective of preposition. The possessive sounds the same as most plurals, having an s/z sound, depending upon preceeding sound. It is written as apostrophe s or s apostophe in most plurals. Only pronouns actually change form as other major languages do. Nouns that do not form plurals normally (adding an s) keep the apostrophe s as woman"s/women"s (no apostrophe on this keyboard).

Ty Kendall wrote:



.....which ones?